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View Diary: The Second Amendment was Ratified to Preserve Slavery (294 comments)

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  •  I Didn't Mean to Leave It Out, I Didn't Know -- (2+ / 0-)
    Recommended by:
    luckydog, wu ming

    thanks.

    We are called to speak for the weak, for the voiceless, for victims of our nation and for those it calls enemy.... --ML King "Beyond Vietnam"

    by Gooserock on Tue Jan 15, 2013 at 08:01:29 PM PST

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    •  It's interesting what gets lost to history (1+ / 0-)
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      sidnora

      I would wager that most northerners are unaware of the fact that just about every single state in the country still had slaves up to the Civil War. The northern states never actually abolished slavery. They instead passed laws whereby children born after a certain date would no longer be considered slaves, and that once the slaves already alive reached a certain age they would be set free. By the time the Constitution was being written, slavery was no longer economically sound for the northern states due to a change in what crops they could grow and sell. Tragically, most of the slaveowners in the North ended up selling their slaves to the Deep South before they hit the age of freedom, often right before.  

      Also, the Virginia delegates at the Convention were of the mind that slavery was on the way out because they were also going through the same economic changes the more northern states were. So men like Jefferson were willing to accept compromises those from colonies further South were not.

      Time is of no account with great thoughts, which are as fresh to-day as when they first passed through their authors' minds ages ago. - Samuel Smiles

      by moviemeister76 on Tue Jan 15, 2013 at 08:16:22 PM PST

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      •  You are incorrect. (3+ / 0-)
        Recommended by:
        mightymouse, sfbob, Chitown Kev

        The states abolish slavery one by one. It was done by setting a future cut off date. Since there were relatively few slaves to begin with the economic impact was not major.

        •  That should read (1+ / 0-)
          Recommended by:
          Chitown Kev

          The northern states abolished slavery

        •  The cutoff was for the children (2+ / 0-)
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          Cedwyn, Chitown Kev

          Abolishing slavery means that you end it not only for those about to be born, but for current slaves as well. That's what the US Congress did in 1865. But no state did that except, I believe, Vermont. They instead offered gradual emancipation. This, in turn, allowed the owners to sell their slaves further South rather than setting them free. The most northern states sold their slaves to Maryland and Virginian. And then when those two states began to depend far less on slaves, they in turn sold them to the Deep South.

          However, just because something is the law does not mean all people actually follow it. Rhode Island "ended" slavery in the 1780s, yet slaves were still showing up on census records in that state in the 1840s and beyond. Same for other states in the North.

          And while many northern states had very few slaves, there were some, like NY, NJ and RI, which heavily depended on slaves for several years. NY in particular had many thousands of slaves until the state experienced an economic change that removed the need for slaves.

          Time is of no account with great thoughts, which are as fresh to-day as when they first passed through their authors' minds ages ago. - Samuel Smiles

          by moviemeister76 on Tue Jan 15, 2013 at 09:04:06 PM PST

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      •  not every northern state (4+ / 0-)
        Recommended by:
        mightymouse, Wilmguy, Robobagpiper, sfbob

        had slavery up to the civil war. The Northwest Territory Act prohibited slavery and OH, IN MI, IL, WI, IA & MN all came into the union w/o slavery per that act. Also, ME came in as no.-slave.

        When you say it is "common sense" what you are really saying is "I don't have any evidence to back up my argument", because it is quite often neither common nor sense.

        by kaminpdx on Tue Jan 15, 2013 at 09:44:46 PM PST

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