I wonder if someone can help explain this, or provide the real facts? This seems to be how some on the Right intend to justify delegitimizing Obama's presidency -- by claiming it was an election stolen by ballot box stuffing.
In total, there are 21 districts in Cleveland where Mr. Romney received precisely 0 votes. In 23 districts, he received precisely 1 vote. And naturally, in one of the districts where Obama won 100% of the vote, there was 100% turnout. What a coincidence!There is also a claim that Obama won some district down in Florida by 141% of eligible voters in the district or some such. I assume at least some of all this has to do with unofficial counts and provisional ballots and such? Or maybe wingers just totally pulling numbers out of their backside like they did with Romney's polls? Are these "unskewed" voting tallies?
By the way, in case you are thinking that Romney did so poorly because maybe those districts were not very populated: Nope. In those 44 districts, Mr. Obama won 14,686 to 23. That's .16% of the vote for Romney.
Anyone have the real facts on this, or an explanation? I'm not a number cruncher, so I couldn't make much sense out of the data the story links to, other than one district apparently only had 2 registered voters (how is that possible? I could see that happening in some thinly populated western state, but Cleveland?) and both voted for Obama.